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Now we come to another blatant example where the Apostle Paul misquotes on purpose a verse from the Tanakh and in so doing twists completely it's meaning. Having read the passage below from Paul's letter to the Ephesians for years it never dawned on me that it was a corruption of the passages as originally written by David in the Psalms as recorded in the Jewish texts. Let us investigate the matter.
Let us first examine the passage as taken from the Jewish Bible:
Psalm 68:19, "You ascended on high, You have taken captives, You took gifts of man and even of rebels, to dwell with Yah, G-d"
Paul quotes this verse in Ephesians chapter 4 verse 8:
Eph 4:8 8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. (KJV)
Christianity looks to the Pauline passage in Ephesians and believes that the verse supposedly refers to Jesus, the Messiah, who ascended into heaven following his resurrection.
Answer for yourself: What is the truth of the matter?
First of all let us direct our attention to the "verbs" in the above passages. The verbs in both passages are in the "past tense." This Psalm, written in the past tense, is not a prophesy in the first place and has absolutely nothing to do with any future events. This passage from the Psalms relates to a past event, which is the ascending Mount Sinai by Moses who received the gift of the Torah which brings G-d to mankind through Judaism. Even in the Broadman Bible Commentary (a Baptist commentary) it makes the statement that the events depicted are to be viewed as something that has already occurred and not to be understood as something yet to take place (Broadman Bible Commentary, Esther-Psalms, Vol. 4, p. 306). This is one of those verses which Christianity uses inappropriately in order to serve its own purpose and to justify it's theological agenda.
Next let us view the context of the passage as taken from the Jewish Scriptures. The Psalm is related to a service of worship in and near the Jerusalem temple and, also, it has special emphasis concerning the arrival and effect of the Presence of G-d. The Psalm begins with a reference to the coming of G-d in theophany and a description of the effect of this advent upon both His enemies and those who revere Him. This motif of the "coming of the Presence of G-d" reminds one of the incredible description of the coming of G-d to Mount Sinai. If you have forgotten the story I suggest you read the events of Exodus 19-20 and refresh your memory as it depicts the coming of G-d's Presence to the top of the Mount of Sinai. In the Psalm G-d is shown to have "taken gifts from man" in the form of offerings and worship, but in Paul's quote of the passage something entirely different is said. Paul has G-d giving gifts to man through Jesus where the Psalms has it just the opposite!
The use of "rise up" terminology associated with the ark and G-d's Presence in battle (Num. 10:35) suggests here, as in other Psalms, that the ark may somehow have symbolized G-d's Presence in the theophany. So we are dealing here with the coming of the Presence of G-d and it's manifold effect. Thus the psalmist declares that G-d rises up, and when He does things happen: His enemies scatter, the Righteous are glad, etc. Beginning with verses 7-18 the psalmist proceeds next to a further description of G-d's coming, in language reminiscent of the experiences of Sinai and the wilderness marches. Accompanied by chariots myriad multiplied, repeated thousands of them, the Lord is depicted having come from Sinai to a holy sanctuary. He went up to the high place, that is, to Zion, victoriously leading the defeated slaves and captives and accepting tribute, offerings, and worship from the apostate rebels who have now been brought to heel but who had questioned His settling on Zion.
If we allow the context to speak to us, instead of reading our prior Christian theology into the text, then we find that G-d was simply leading the "captives" and "slaves" of Egypt through the wilderness to the Mount of G-d where He would give them His Covenant and His Law. Now as stated Paul talks of "giving gifts to men." I find it very ironic, and you should as well, that the context of the passage that Paul uses can only refer to one thing that G-d gave to man and that was His Law, yet Paul is known for rejecting such a gift as, according to his other epistles, "we are not under the Law but under grace."
Answer for yourself: Don't you see the contradictions that abound in what the Hebrew really says and what Paul quotes? Don't you see that even though Paul quotes the passage and gives it Prophetic authority for what he says, in reality although he interprets and refers to "gifts" given to men he at other places nullifies such a gift from G-d, His Law, by his negative representation of it in the New Testament and also by his avowal that Christ did away with the Law?
Christians read into the passage that the "ascension" spoken of here refers to Jesus' ascension following his resurrection. As you can now see from the "verbs" that referred to something already past, let alone the twisting of "G-d being given gifts by men" and "G-d giving gifts to men" that Paul has completely destroyed the original meaning of the passage as intended by the Prophet. Instead of depicting the worship of G-d whereby men give to G-d the worship and praise due him, the passage looses this meaning completely by the hand of Paul and he turns the verse into something completely different than what it was originally intended to convey. In Pentecostal circles one need only wait 5 minutes or less to hear the repetition that upon Jesus' resurrection and ascension, and following Pentecost, the anointing of G-d fell upon the church and they were equipped for ministry as testified by the various ministry gifts of the Spirit. Dear children of G-d that idea is totally foreign to the original passage as you now see for yourself as it speaks ONLY of man giving G-d worship! After Paul adds to the Word of G-d in Ephesians do we have the corrupted meaning whereby G-d is giving man something connected to the ascensions of Jesus following his resurrection.
In closing let us think on these things:
Deut 4:2 2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your G-d which I command you. (KJV)
Deut 12:32 32 What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it. (KJV)
Answer for yourself: Now after examining these passages can you say before G-d that Paul is not guilty of violating the above two admonitions?
Bennoah1@verizon.net