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Isaiah 49:1,3,5-6,
v.1 "Listen to me, O islands, and hearken, O distant regimes: Hashem summoned me from the belly; He mentioned my name from my mother's womb..."
v. 3 "He said to me: You are my servant, Israel, in whom I take glory."
v. 5 "And now Hashem, Who formed me from the belly to be a servant to Him, said [I should] return, Jacob to Him, so that Israel would be gathered to Him; so I was honored in G-d's eyes and my G-d was my strength."
v. "He said: It is insufficient that you be a servant for Me [only] to raise up the tribes of Jacob and to restore the ruins of Israel; I will make you a light for the nations, so that My salvation may extend to the ends of the earth."
It is common practice of Christianity to negate the "corporate" understanding of the "Servant" terminology of the Bible and stress that such "Servant" terminology supposedly refers to Jesus who is the servant and light to the Gentiles.
Answer for yourself: What is the truth of the matter?
In verse 3, the servant is explicitly stated as "Israel" the corporate nations. Consequently, without question, the people of Israel are those called from the womb as G-d's servant. But, the servant in verse 5 is the terminology used for Isaiah himself. The calling of Isaiah was unique. We see this clearly because the prophet's function is to call Jacob to G-d while Israel is still not redeemed. The indication of the servant is once again returned to the nation of Israel in verse 6, where Israel is described as a light to the Gentiles, as it often is in Scripture. Due to transfer of appellation "servant," this might be confusing to the unlearned in Biblical passage structure. But, once viewed correctly, the literary style presents no obstacle for Judaic understanding. Israel, as well as Isaiah, is G-d's servant.
Answer for yourself: Jesus' name is surely not "Israel," is it? So, he is not the subject of this passage, is he? Jesus functions as G-d's servant as does every Jew who is a part of Israel. Each Jew is called by G-d to be His light and testimony to the world. Jesus functioned in such a capacity but did so not uniquely but as every Jew had before him and would again after him.
Another point to be made here is that Christianity claims Jesus is G-d.
Answer for yourself: G-d cannot be made in the womb to be a servant of Himself, can He?
It's not a mystery. It's just irrational and absurd. Also, he cannot be given status as servant from birth, when he is G-d eternal in Christianity. Once again, the comfortable fit is Judaism's explanation. It fits because it is true.