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This Psalm, according to the Christians, is a prophecy of Jesus' sufferings for mankind. This Psalm is quoted in various places, but I will only deal with it in regards to verses 4 and 5.
Psalm 69:4 They that hate me without a cause are more than the hairs of mine head: they that would destroy me, being mine enemies wrongfully, are mighty: then I restored that which I took not away. (KJV)
We find Psalm 69:4 quoted by the writer of the Gospel of John in John 15:25:
John 15:25 But this cometh to pass, that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their law, They hated me without a cause. (KJV)
I would
hope you agree with me but if you had not been taught about Jesus and the
theology surrounding him as taught by Gentile Christianity then when
reading this Psalm you would have absolutely no idea that Jesus is the
subject of this Psalm; in fact you would look to David as the subject of
this Psalm. As I've established in prior articles the
strength of our subconscious in reading into these texts preformed
religious ideas instead of drawing out of these texts and their own
historical context the subject intended to be understood by the reader by
the original writer. To
read this Psalm and see Jesus requires belief in Jesus before this becomes
a valid proof. If
we were the least bit familiar with David and his rise to Kingship and the
difficulties along the way where he was rejected by his own people then we
would have little if any trouble understanding that this Psalm is a
testimony of David's life written by him no less.
Additionally, this same logic is used for the verse regarding drinking
vinegar. Because Jesus drank vinegar on the cross, and the Psalm speaks of
someone being served vinegar to drink, obviously the Psalm must be talking
about Jesus! This sort of logic is hopelessly flawed. But these are small
things compared to what I have to say next!
Answer
for yourself: Do you normally read an entire Psalm before jumping
to the conclusion that the writer is referring to Jesus? Is the whole
Bible about Jesus? How come the Jews don't know this as Christians seem to
know?
If you take the time to read the entire Psalm then this Psalm disagrees with the New Testament's portrayal of Jesus:
Psalms 69:5 O G-d, thou knowest my foolishness; and my sins are not hid from thee. (KJV)
It is quite well known that Christians espouse the doctrine of Jesus' "sinless nature." However, if the New Testament wants to apply Psalm 69 to Jesus who is also taught by them to be a "lamb without blemish" and a "sinless sacrifice" then Christianity is snared by the very words of their mouth and this Psalm is in no way a Messianic Psalm fulfilled by Jesus for such a "sinful condition" of this one who is "hated without cause" cannot be the Christian Jesus!
Bennoah1@verizon.net